Type of work: Lan testing
Subject: Answers to the financial accounting test
Discipline: Accounting financial accounting
Download: For free
Placement date: 03.03.10 at 13:04
Tests in the discipline "Accounting (financial) reporting"
Topic 1. The concept of accounting (financial) reporting in Russia
a) external accounting (financial) reporting;
2. What is the name of the qualitative characteristic of accounting (financial) statements, in the presence of which the statements exclude the unilateral satisfaction of the interests of some user groups over others?
b) neutrality;
3. Specify what is meant by the reporting year?
a) calendar year;
4. What type of accounting is intended for collecting initial information used in accounting, statistical and tax accounting?
a) managerial;
5. Name the document of the fourth level of the regulatory system accounting and reporting in Russian Federation:
b) the order of the head of the organization "On approval of the forms of primary accounting documents";
6. What is the quantitative value of the criterion of materiality of information contained in financial statements?
c) 5 or more percent of the total of the relevant data.
7. What financial information contained in the financial statements is material to interested users?
a) one, the non-disclosure of which may affect the economic decisions taken by users on its basis;
8. What type of report is not included in the financial statements of organizations?
b) report of the executive body;
9. Indicate the information needs of creditors as users of the financial statements of organizations:
a) information about the ability of the organization to repay the existing debt and pay the appropriate interest on it;
10. What is the date of approval of the annual financial statements?
c) the date of its approval supreme body organization management.
11. What financial statements are considered reliable and complete?
c) the one that is formed on the basis of the rules established by regulatory acts on accounting.
12. What reporting forms are mandatory included in the interim financial statements?
b) balance sheet, income statement;
13. Interim financial statements include:
a) monthly and quarterly reporting;
14. When should annual financial statements be submitted to users?
a) within 90 days after the end of the reporting year;
a) the period from the date of state registration of a legal entity until December 31 of the current year inclusive;
16. To what structures the organization is not obliged to provide a copy of its financial statements free of charge?
a) the state statistics body;
tax authority.
17. In what reporting form should the organization reflect the debt of insolvent debtors written off at a loss?
a) in a certificate of the presence of valuables accounted for on off-balance accounts;
18. What form of annual financial statements contains the indicator "Basic profit (loss) per share"?
b) Profit and loss statement (Form No. 2).
19. In what form of annual financial statements is disclosed information on the presence, receipt and disposal of intangible assets by their types in the assessment at historical cost?
b) in the appendix to the balance sheet (form No. 5);
20. In what form of annual financial statements is disclosed information on estimated reserves?
c) in the statement of changes in equity (Form No. 3).
21. How are events after the reporting date reflected in the financial statements?
b) by disclosing relevant information in the statement of changes in equity (Form No. 3);
22. What information for the purposes of preparing annual financial statements refers to information about affiliates?
a) data on transactions between the organization preparing financial statements and affiliated persons;
23. An event after the balance sheet date is:
a) an event that took place between the reporting date and the date of signing the financial statements for the reporting year;
24. Information on conditional facts of economic activity, the consequences of which are conditional assets, is provided:
c) in explanatory note.
25. The conditional fact of economic activity includes:
b) guarantees, guarantees and other types of obligations issued before the reporting date in favor of third parties, the deadlines for which have not come;
26. For the purposes of accounting, affiliates are:
a) individuals - employees of the organization capable of influencing the activities of other legal entities and individuals;
27. The consequences of events after the reporting date, confirming the existence at the reporting date of economic conditions in which the organization conducted its activities:
c) measured in monetary terms, reflected in synthetic and analytical accounting as the final turnover of the reporting period before the approval of the annual financial statements and disclosed in the explanatory note.
28. Terminated activity in the financial statements is recognized on the date:
a) bringing information about the decision to terminate activities to the attention of interested legal entities and individuals;
29. What additional obligations do the organization have as a result of the recognition of part of the activity as discontinued?
c) obligations for the early repayment of all received credits and loans.
30. What is the date of recognition in the accounting of the reserve for the organization's obligations in connection with the termination of part of the activity (to cover the costs of dismissal of employees, payment of fines and penalties under business contracts, etc.):
a) the last day of the reporting year;
31. What is the frequency of submission of financial statements by public organizations (associations) that do not entrepreneurial activity and having no turnover on the sale of goods, works, services (except for retired property)?
c) once a year.
32. Which organizations are required to submit as part of their annual financial statements a report on the intended use of the funds received (form No. 6)?
b) public organizations(associations) that do not carry out entrepreneurial activities and do not have turnover for the sale of goods, works, services (except for retired property);
33. What normative act contains the definition and establishes the composition of the financial statements of the organization?
c) Regulation on accounting "Accounting statements of the organization" PBU 4/99.
34. Which of the following factors determine the features of the formation of financial statements:
b) organizational and legal form of the organization;
35. Continue the statement: "The financial statements are prepared taking into account ...":
36. The reporting date for the preparation of financial statements is:
a) the last day of the reporting period
37. Select from the list the option to continue the phrase: “The financial statements include ...”
c) property, liabilities and capital of the organization as of the reporting date, as well as information about events after the reporting date and contingent facts of economic activity.
38. Non-Profit Organizations have the right not to provide as part of the annual financial statements:
b) statement of changes in equity (form No. 3), statement of movements Money(form No. 4), and Appendix to the balance sheet (form No. 5) in the absence of relevant data;
39. In what year was the International Accounting Standards Committee formed?
b) in 1973;
40. Specify correct name documents developed by the International Accounting Standards Board:
a) international financial reporting standards and their interpretation;
Topic 2. Balance sheet
1. The balance of funds provided to the organization from budgetary sources is reflected in the balance sheet under the article:
a) "deferred income";
c) "Additional capital".
2. In which section balance sheet reflects the amount of accumulated expenses for research, development and technological work?
a) "Capital and reserves";
b) "Current assets";
c) "Non-current assets".
3. What characterizes the balance sheet of the organization?
b) the financial position of the organization at the reporting date;
4. What is the main difference between the opening balance and the operating balance?
c) in the method of evaluating articles that characterize the economic means of the organization.
5. The balance sheet, in which there are no regulatory articles, is called:
b) net balance;
6. How many sections does the operating balance sheet include?
7. Depending on the source of compilation, the balance sheets are divided into:
a) inventory, book, general;
8. The balance sheet contains information on the financial position of the organization as of:
c) at the reporting date.
9. At what cost is depreciable property reflected in the balance sheet?
b) by residual value;
10. In what valuation are treasury shares repurchased from shareholders reflected in the balance sheet?
c) at the purchase price.
11. In what assessment is the debt on loans received by the organization reflected in the balance sheet?
b) in the amount of loans and credits actually received, taking into account interest payable as of the reporting date;
12. It is allowed to reflect in the balance sheet a “folded” account balance for accounts:
c) 09 "Deferred tax assets" and 77 "Deferred tax liabilities"
13. Which group of balance sheet items reflects the budget debt to the organization for value added tax?
14. The balance of which accounts is reflected in the balance sheet item " Finished products and goods for resale?
b) 41 "Goods" (minus the balance of account 42 "Trade margin") and 43 "Finished products";
15. Under what article of the balance sheet should the organization reflect the balance of account 07 “Equipment for installation”?
a) "construction in progress";
16. How should the accounts payable of the organization be grouped in the liquidation balance sheets?
b) in accordance with the order of satisfaction of creditors' claims established by law;
b) balance sheet;
18. How is the indicator of accounts receivable of buyers and customers determined in the annual balance sheet if the organization has accrued a reserve for doubtful debts?
c) based on the amount of receivables according to accounting data, reduced by the amount of the reserve.
19. On December 20, 2001, the organization received a bank loan for a period of 4 years. Under what item should the amount of debt on this loan be reflected in the annual balance sheet as of December 31, 2004?
b) "Loans and credits (short-term)";
20. In the balance sheet are compared:
c) assets, liabilities and equity.
21. What accounting principle is implemented using the balance sheet?
b) property isolation;
22. The Russian standard form of the balance sheet assumes the location of assets:
b) in ascending order of liquidity (from less liquid items to more
liquid);
23. A feature of the consolidated balance sheet is:
a) inclusion in the balance sheet of data on the assets and liabilities of the organization's divisions allocated to separate balance sheets;
24. A feature of the operating balance is:
b) the presence of articles characterizing the distribution of income and expenses by periods;
25. The preparation of the annual balance sheet should be preceded by:
c) reconciliation of settlements with buyers and customers;
26. The indicator of the debt of the founders on contributions to the authorized capital of the organization is reflected in the group of articles:
a) "Accounts receivable (payments for which are expected within 12 months after the reporting date)";
27. The balance of the balance sheet account 29 "Service industries and farms" is included in the balance sheet item:
c) "Costs in work in progress."
28. The balance sheet of a production cooperative includes an item:
c) Mutual fund.
29. Which balance sheet item reflects the balance of the accrued reserve for payment of upcoming vacations of employees?
b) "Reserves for future expenses";
30. Where is the cost of goods accepted by the organization for commission reflected?
c) in a certificate of the presence of valuables accounted for on off-balance accounts.
Topic 3. Profit and loss statement
1. What normative act provides the definition of reliable and complete financial statements?
b) in the Accounting Regulations "Accounting statements of the organization" (4/99);
2. Name the source of information for determining the indicator "Non-operating income" of the income statement (form No. 2):
c) analytical accounting data on account 91/1 “Other income”.
3. Name the source of information for determining the indicator "Other operating expenses" of the income statement (form No. 2):
a) analytical accounting data on account 91/2 “Other expenses”;
4. In what assessment is the organization's revenue from the sale of goods (products, works, services) for the reporting period reflected in the income statement (form No. 2)?
b) in net valuation, except for VAT, excises and similar obligatory payments;
5. When selling other property, the line "Other operating income" in the profit and loss statement (form No. 2) shall reflect:
c) proceeds from the sale of property minus value added tax.
6. Income in the form of dividends to be received from other organizations in the income statement (form No. 2) is reflected in the line:
b) income from participation in other organizations;
7. Expenses in the form of interest for the use of loans provided by other organizations in the profit and loss statement (form No. 2) are reflected in the line:
a) interest payable;
8. The line "Extra-operating income" of the income statement (form No. 2) shall reflect:
a) the profit of previous years, revealed in the reporting year;
9. How is the amount of contingent income tax expense determined?
a) by multiplying the accounting profit (loss) before tax by the income tax rate;
10. How is the amount of basic profit (loss) per share determined?
b) as the ratio of basic profit to the weighted average number of ordinary and preferred shares;
11. Profit and loss statement (form No. 2) does not contain characteristics:
b) changes in the equity capital of the organization for the reporting period;
12. Continue the phrase "Indicators of the income statement are formed on the basis of ...":
b) data on income and expenses recognized in accounting;
13. Profit and loss statement (form No. 2) does not include the section:
a) income and expenses from ordinary activities;
b) other income and expenses;
14. Specify the indicator included in the income statement:
a) current income tax;
15. Specify the type of income included in operating income:
a) positive exchange rate differences;
c) interest receivable.
16. Extraordinary income and related expenses may be included in the income statement in a net form if they:
c) arose as a result of the same or similar fact of economic activity, and are not significant for characterizing the financial position of the organization.
17. Net revenue from the sale of goods (products, works, services) is recognized
for the purposes of drawing up a profit and loss statement in an amount determined by
based:
b) the fact of shipment (sale), the terms of business contracts (in terms of the transfer of ownership) and the provisions of the accounting policy in terms of determining revenue for tax purposes
18. Which of the following types of events after the balance sheet date can be included in the income statement?
b) detection after the reporting date of a significant error in accounting or violation of the law in the course of the activities of the organization, which lead to the distortion of financial statements for the reporting period;
19. What indicator links the income statement and the balance sheet?
a) deferred tax assets and liabilities;
20. In what reporting form is reflected the amount of commercial expenses of the organization?
b) in the income statement (Form No. 2);
21. What cost indicator can be reflected in the line "Cost of sold goods, products, works, services"?
b) actual production cost;
22. What is the indicator of selling expenses of a trade organization, reflected in the line "Selling expenses" of the income statement?
a) turnover on the debit of account 90/2 “Cost of sales” and the credit of account 44 “Sales costs”;
23. What type of income and expenses of the organization is mainly disclosed in the Breakdown of individual profits and losses?
c) non-operating.
24. Profit received by the organization from participation in joint activities, admits:
b) operating income;
25. Profit and loss statement (form No. 2) is part of:
c) interim and annual financial statements.
Topic 4. Statement of cash flows
1. Cash flow statement (form No. 4) characterizes:
a) a change in the financial result of the activities of an organization that keeps records of income and expenses on a cash basis;
b) change in the financial position of the organization in the context of current, investment and financial activities;
c) change in the net assets of the organization in the context of current, investment and financial activities.
2. What type of activity, for the purposes of compiling a cash flow statement, is the receipt of cash from the sale of finished products?
a) to current activities;
3. For the purposes of the cash flow statement, what type of activity does cash flow from the sale of property, plant and equipment relate to?
4. What type of activity, for the purposes of compiling a cash flow statement, is the outflow of cash in connection with the acquisition of intangible assets?
c) to investment activity.
5. How is the amount of the item “Net increase (decrease) in cash and cash equivalents” in the statement of cash flows determined?
b) by summing up net cash from the current, investment and financial activities of the organization;
6. Name the methods used in international practice for compiling a cash flow statement:
c) direct and indirect.
7. Using the direct method, a cash flow statement is prepared:
a) on the basis of data on the receipt and expenditure of funds reflected in the cash accounts;
8. With the indirect method, a cash flow statement is prepared:
c) on the basis of data from the balance sheet, profit and loss statement and appendix to the balance sheet.
9. How is the organization's net profit adjusted for the amount of depreciation charges under the indirect method of compiling a cash flow statement?
b) net profit increases by the amount of depreciation;
10. Which cash flow statement method is used in Russia?
a) straight
11. What activities are included in the cash flow statement
funds?
c) current, financial and investment activities.
12. Give the most precise definition. "The current activity is...":
a) the main activity aimed at generating income, as well as other activities of the organization that are not related to investment and financial activities;
13. Give the most precise definition. Investment activity is...
b) activities related to the acquisition (creation) of fixed assets, intangible and other non-current assets, the implementation of long-term financial investments, as well as the sale of these types of non-current assets;
14. Give the most precise definition. "Financial activity is...":
a) activities that lead to a change in the size and composition of the organization's own capital, borrowed funds;
15. What items of the statement of cash flows ensure its linkage with the balance sheet?
b) cash balance at the beginning and end of the reporting period;
16. What cash flows do not relate to financing activities?
c) the use of money for wages.
17. Give the most precise definition. "The indirect method of compiling a cash flow statement is...":
a) a variant of presenting the movement of cash flows in the form of a change in the values of the assets and liabilities of the organization, the change in which affects the financial result of its activities for the reporting period;
18. Cash balance at the end of the period in the Cash Flow Statement
b) always coincides with the balance sheet data at the end of the reporting period;
19. Activities in the cash flow statement are not classified:
b) as entrepreneurial;
20. Is it obligatory for the organization to submit a cash flow statement (Form No. 4) as part of interim financial statements?
Topic 5 . Consolidated and consolidated financial statements
1. How is the value of the item “Business reputation of subsidiaries” in the consolidated (consolidated) balance sheet determined?
a) as the difference between the balance sheet estimate of the parent organization's financial investments in the subsidiary and the cost estimate of the parent organization's share in the authorized capital of the subsidiary;
2. What income and expenses are not included in the consolidated (consolidated) profit and loss statement of the group when combining the financial statements of the parent organization and subsidiaries?
b) any income and expenses arising from transactions between the parent organization and subsidiaries, as well as between subsidiaries of one parent organization;
3. What data on dependent companies are included in the summary (consolidated) financial statements?
c) an indicator reflecting the value of the participation of the parent organization in the dependent company; an indicator reflecting the share of the parent organization in the profits or losses of the dependent company for the reporting period.
4. The financial statements of a subsidiary may not be included in the consolidated (consolidated) financial statements if:
c) the parent organization has acquired more than 50% of the share in the authorized capital of a subsidiary for a short-term period with a view to subsequent resale.
5. To what extent is the summary (consolidated) financial statements prepared?
a) reporting includes a consolidated balance sheet and a consolidated income statement;
6. Who signs the summary (consolidated) financial statements?
a) the head and chief accountant of the head organization;
7. Summary (consolidated) financial statements are submitted:
c) founders (participants) of the parent organization.
8. Where is the item “Business reputation of subsidiaries” located in the consolidated (consolidated) balance sheet if the balance sheet value of the financial investments of the parent organization in the subsidiary exceeds the nominal value of the share of the parent organization in the authorized capital of the subsidiary?
c) in the section "Non-current assets".
9. Where is the item "Minority interest" in the consolidated balance sheet?
b) after the result of the section "Capital and reserves";
10. How is minority interest determined for a consolidated income statement?
a) based on the amount of retained earnings (loss) for the reporting period and the share not owned by the parent organization in the authorized capital of the subsidiary;
11. When is the summary (consolidated) financial statements prepared?
b) no later than June 30 of the year following the reporting year or within the time limits established by the constituent documents;
12. If the parent organization has only dependent companies, then the consolidated financial statements are prepared:
b) is not compiled;
13. A minority interest in the consolidated balance sheet arises:
a) when acquiring less than 100% of the capital of a subsidiary;
14. What normative act establishes the procedure for compiling consolidated reporting?
b) Regulation on accounting "Accounting statements of the organization" PBU 4/99;
15. What is the difference between consolidated financial statements and consolidated financial statements?
c) consolidated reporting combines reports on the parent organization and its divisions allocated to a separate balance sheet; consolidated - the parent organization and its subsidiaries and dependent companies.
16. What share of participation of the parent organization in the authorized capital (voting shares) of another organization is the basis for recognizing the latter as a subsidiary?
17. The individual statements of which of the following organizations should be included in the consolidated statements?
b) subsidiaries, shares in which are acquired by the parent organization for a period exceeding one year;
18. Participation in dependent companies is reflected in the consolidated balance sheet as part of the indicator:
a) "Long-term financial investments";
19. The calculation of the actual participation of the parent organization in dependent companies can be presented as follows:
b) the sum of the value of financial investments (actual costs of acquiring a share in a dependent company) and the share of the parent organization in the financial result of the dependent company from the moment of investment (cumulative total);
20. The indicator of the minority share in retained earnings (uncovered loss) is reflected in the following forms of consolidated financial statements:
b) in the consolidated balance sheet and income statement;
21. The indicator of the minority share in the authorized capital is reflected in the following forms of consolidated financial statements:
a) in the consolidated balance sheet;
22. The minority share in the authorized capital of a subsidiary is calculated as:
c) the product of the calculated value of the authorized capital of the subsidiary and the share of participation in the capital of the subsidiary, which does not belong to the parent organization.
23. Can the parent organization use standard forms of the balance sheet and profit and loss statement to prepare consolidated financial statements?
b) cannot;
c) may, with the consent of subsidiaries.
24. The indicator "Minority interest" is not reflected in the consolidated financial statements under the following conditions:
b) if the parent organization owns 100 percent of the charter capital (voting shares) of the subsidiary;
25. The consolidated financial statements disclose information on transactions between organizations that are part of a group of interdependent economic entities, except for information on the following transactions:
a) the parent organization with subsidiaries and between subsidiaries that are part of the same group of related organizations;
26. The parent organization preparing consolidated financial statements may prepare financial statements in the following format:
c) which the organization determines independently, taking into account the norms of the current legislation.
27. Specify the main users of the consolidated financial statements:
c) shareholders of the parent organization.
28. Reporting, compiled by the executive authority as a result of summing up the indicators of the financial statements of subordinate enterprises and organizations, is called:
a) consolidated;
29. The requirements for the preparation of summary (consolidated) statements of a group of related organizations do not include:
b) requirement of publicity;
30. As of what single reporting date in the Russian Federation is a consolidated (consolidated) balance sheet prepared:
Topic 6. Explanatory note - the text part of the accounting report
1. What parts do the explanations to the financial statements consist of?
b) statement of changes in capital (form No. 3), cash flow statement (form No. 4), appendix to the balance sheet (form No. 5), report on the intended use of funds received (form No. 6), explanatory note;
2. What is the main purpose of the explanatory note to the financial statements?
b) expand the capabilities of reporting users to use it to make management and investment decisions;
3. The explanatory note is not intended for:
c) disclosure of information on cash flows for current, investment and financial activities.
4. Which organizations may not submit an explanatory note as part of their financial statements?
a) public organizations (associations) that do not carry out entrepreneurial activities and do not have, except for retired property, turnover for the sale of goods (works, services);
5. What normative act most fully defines the composition of the explanatory note?
c) Order of the Ministry of Finance of Russia “On Forms of Accounting Statements of Organizations” dated July 22, 2003 No. 67n.
6. Which section of the explanatory note is additional to the list of sections that ensure compliance with the minimum requirements for disclosure of information in the financial statements?
b) promising areas of research work funded by the organization;
7. What section should be included in the explanatory note only for joint-stock companies?
c) information about affiliates.
8. What is the specificity of the explanatory note to the financial statements of unitary enterprises?
b) the presence of the section "State assistance";
9. Which of the indicators listed below may not be given in the explanatory note?
a) basic and diluted earnings per share;
10. Scope of the explanatory note:
c) not regulated.
11. The accounting policy in the explanatory note is disclosed:
b) limitedly, indicating the changes applied from the next reporting year and assessing the impact of the changes effective in the reporting year compared to previous reporting periods;
12. Events that occurred after the reporting date are disclosed by the organization:
c) in the financial statements or in an explanatory note at the discretion of the organization.
13. In the explanatory note, information is presented:
a) in any convenient form;
14. The explanatory note is
c) an obligatory part of the financial statements.
15. When describing the solvency of an organization in an explanatory note, attention should be paid to:
b) the presence of overdue receivables and payables;
V) total settlement accounts opened by the organization.
Topic 7. Segment reporting
1. Which organizations may not present segment information in their annual financial statements?
b) small businesses;
2. An operating or geographic segment is a reportable segment if:
a) Segment revenue from sales to external customers is at least 10% of the entity's revenue;
3. Who sets the entity's reportable segments?
a) is established by the organization independently, based on its organizational and management structure;
4. In what case is the number of allocated reportable segments considered sufficient to present information on segments in the financial statements?
b) if the reportable segments identified in the preparation of financial statements account for at least 75% of the organization's revenue;
5. Reportable segment income does not include:
a) extraordinary income;
b) revenue from operations with other segments;
c) income from the sale of fixed assets of the segment.
6. Reportable segment expenses do not include:
b) general business and other expenses related to the organization as a whole;
7. Reportable segment expenses include:
V) wage production staff.
8. Reportable segment liabilities do not include:
c) income tax debt to the budget.
9. Under what conditions are assets shared between two or more reportable segments allocated to those segments?
a) if income and expenses associated with the use of assets are distributed among the segments;
10. In what cases is the disclosure of information by geographical segments recognized as primary when reporting on the segments of the organization's activities?
b) if the risks and profits of the organization are determined mainly by differences in the regions of operation;
11. When selecting operating segments as segments that carry primary information, the carrying value of assets is allocated pro rata:
a) the amount of proceeds (net) received from the sale of certain types of goods (products, works, services);
12. The main purpose of segment information is to:
b) provide interested users with information that allows them to better assess the activities of the organization, the prospects for its development, exposure to risks of non-profit;
13. A good reason for an entity not to report segment information is that:
c) the organization does not have an expanded geography of sales of goods (products, works, services), as well as an expanded range of products.
14. An operating or geographic segment is considered to be a reportable segment if:
f) the assets of this segment amount to at least 5 percent of the total assets of all segments.
15. The reportable segments allocated in the preparation of the financial statements of the organization must account for at least:
b) 75% of the organization's revenue;
16. Can regions of the Russian Federation be considered as geographical segments?
c) no more than ten.
18. The revenue (income) of the reporting segment is:
c) part of the revenue related to intra-group turnover.
19. Reportable segment expenses are:
a) assessed property tax;
20. Reportable segment liabilities do not include debt:
c) income tax.
Topic 8. Distortions in financial statements. Methods for identifying and correcting errors. The role of audit in assessing the reliability of financial statements.
1. What financial statements are considered reliable and complete?
b) formed on the basis of the rules established by regulatory acts on accounting;
2. Continue the phrase: "Falsification of financial statements is ...":
a) the use of accounting methods not stipulated by law that do not meet the current requirements for reflecting the facts of economic life;
3 What is a technical error?
b) omission of the numerical value of the indicator in the balance sheet;
4. The organization accrued depreciation for July of the fixed asset put into operation on July 2 of the reporting year and used for management needs. What accounting entry should correct the error if it is discovered after the approval of the annual financial statements? c) Dt 02 Kt 91/1.
5. Accounting records for what period are corrections made to accounting if an error made in the reporting year was revealed before the signing of the annual financial statements?
c) in December of the reporting year.
6. The study of changes in accounting indicators over several reporting periods using time series is called:
a) horizontal analysis;
7. What primary document serves to draw up corrective entries?
b) accounting statement;
8. The auditor's report is:
a) an official document containing the opinion of the auditor, expressed in the prescribed form, on the reliability in all material respects of the accounting statements of the audited entity and the compliance of the accounting procedure with the legislation of the Russian Federation;
9. In what case is the audit report included in the financial statements of the organization?
b) if it is subject to mandatory audit in accordance with federal laws;
10. When is an additional entry used to correct an accounting error?
c) when specifying in an erroneous entry the amount of a business transaction that is less than necessary.
Topic 9. Statistical forms of reports (on products, on labor, on the composition and movement of fixed assets, on costs)
1. Budget organizations, banks, insurance and other financial and credit institutions do not fill out the statistical reporting form:
a) form No. P-1 "Information on the production and shipment of goods and services";
2. Small businesses are required to fill out the following forms of statistical reporting:
a) only Form No. PM;
3. How can interested users receive the information contained in the statistical reporting?
a) from official publications of the Federal State Statistics Service;
4. Section 3 "Movement of employees and expected release" of the statistical reporting form No. P-4 "Information on the number, salary and movement of employees" is filled out:
b) increase. total since the beginning of the year;
5. Information on the status of settlements with organizations and enterprises foreign countries are given in:
c) Form No. P-3 “Information on financial condition organizations"
6. What is the frequency of submitting form No. P-1 “Information on the production and shipment of goods and services”?
a) monthly;
7. When calculating which indicator given in the form of statistical reporting No. P-4 “Information on the number, wages and movement of employees”, the number of persons performing work under civil law contracts is not taken into account? a) the payroll number of employees;
8. What indicator of the income statement (form No. 2) corresponds to the profit (loss) received by the organization, given in the form No. P-3 "Information on the financial condition of the organization"? b) profit (loss) before taxation;
9. Information on what areas of financial investments is provided in Form No. P-2 "Information on Investments"?
c) investments by the reporting entity in financial assets and investments by third parties in the reporting entity.
10. In what form of statistical reporting are data on the release of goods, works and services assessed at actual selling prices?
a) in the form No. P-1 "Information on the production and shipment of goods and services";
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Ministry of Education, Science and Youth Policy of the Krasnodar Territory
State budgetary professional educational institution
Krasnodar Territory
"ARMAVIR MACHINE-BUILDING COLLEGE"»
Test on the topic "Balance sheet"
According to MDK 04.01 "Technology for the preparation of financial statements"
for students of the specialty
38.02.01 "Economics and accounting (by industry)"
all forms of education
1. What circumstance causes the possibility of using gross balance and net balance in accounting practice?
1.1. Structural differences between balance sheets.
1.2. Methods for assessing the final indicators.
1.3. Other circumstances.
2. Indicate the element of the balance sheet, which is considered the main one when grouping the information reflected in it.
2.1. Accounting account.
2.2. Balance item.
2.3. Balance currency.
3. The order of presentation of sections, and within their articles in the asset balance is determined by:
3.1. The degree of liquidity of the asset.
3.2. method of property valuation.
3.3. useful life.
4. What liquidity criterion is the basis for presenting information in the asset of the current balance sheet?
4.1. From less liquid assets to more liquid ones.
4.2. From more liquid assets to less liquid ones.
4.3. Other criteria.
5. The order in which the sections are presented, and within their articles in the liabilities side of the balance sheet, is determined by:
5.1. A way to value a liability.
5.2. maturity of the obligation.
5.3. maturity of obligations to creditors.
6. What criterion underlies the presentation of information in the liability of the current balance sheet?
6.1. From less urgent obligations to more urgent ones.
6.2. From more urgent obligations to less urgent ones.
6.3. Other criteria.
7. Specify the structure of sections of the current balance sheet.
7.1. Three sections in the asset and three in the liabilities side of the balance sheet.
7.2. Two sections in the asset and three in the liabilities side of the balance sheet.
7.3. Three sections in the asset and two in the liabilities side of the balance sheet.
8. The formation of an indicator in the asset balance sheet only in the net assessment is used to reflect:
8.1. depreciable objects.
8.2. Accounts receivable.
8.3. Financial investments.
8.4. All of the above.
9. The presentation of the indicator in the balance sheet in expanded form is carried out in the following cases:
9.1. The need for its presentation in the net assessment.
9.2. Reflections on one accounting account of both receivables and payables of the organization.
9.3. Amount reservations.
10. What accounting account generates information about increasing profits from the beginning of the organization's activities to reflect data on this process in the balance sheet?
10.1. Profit and loss account.
10.2. Account "Other income and expenses".
10.3. Account "Retained earnings (uncovered loss)".
11. In the balance sheet, fixed assets are reflected:
11.1. At original cost.
11.2. at replacement cost.
11.3. For residual value.
12. Own shares repurchased from shareholders are reflected:
12.1. In the "Current Assets" section.
1. The balance sheet is a summary of indicators
1) Analytical
2) Interval
3) Synthetic
4) *Torque
2. The balance sheet is a table consisting of
2) *Asset
3) Credit
4) *Passive
3. The main elements of the balance sheet are
1) Active and passive
2) Balance sections
3) *Balance items
4. Sections in the asset balance are arranged in order
1) * Increasing the liquidity of assets
2) Declining liquidity of assets
5. Sections in the liability balance are arranged in order
1) *Declining maturity of liabilities
2) Increasing the maturity of obligations
6. The balance sheet item is
1) Economically heterogeneous types of funds
2) Economically heterogeneous types of sources
3) *Economically heterogeneous types of funds or sources
7. The liabilities of the balance reflect
1) *Reserves for future expenses
2) Fixed assets
3) Deferred expenses
8. In the asset balance are grouped
1) Business processes
2) Sources of property formation
3) *Property
9. Balance sheet assets are grouped by
1) * Degrees of liquidity
2) Types and sources of education
3) Sources of education and purpose
10. Non-current assets include
1) Cash
2) * Profitable investments in material assets
3) *Financial investment
4) *Research and development results
5) *Intangible assets
6) Finished products
8) *Fixed assets
11. Fixed assets are reflected in the balance sheet at cost
1) Transferred
2) *Residual
3) Initial
4) Recovery
12. The results of research and development are reflected in the balance sheet at
1) * The amount of expenses incurred that were not written off at the reporting date
2) Initial cost
3) The amount of R&D expenses written off for the reporting period
13. Current assets include
1) *VAT on acquired valuables
2) * Overpayment of taxes
3) Fixed assets
4) Profitable investments in intangible assets
5) *Finished products
6) *Products
7) Debt to founders
8) *Deferred expenses
14. To fill in the "Inventory" item, the information contained in the accounts is used.
15. To fill in the item “Other current assets”, the information contained in the accounts
16. Finished products in the balance sheet can be valued
1) *At actual cost
2) *At standard cost
3) At original cost
4) By residual value
17. To fill in the group of articles “Financial investments”, the information contained in the accounts is used
18. The section of the balance sheet "Capital and reserves" is represented by articles
1) *Reserve capital
2) Targeted funding
3) * Retained earnings (uncovered loss)
4) *Additional capital
5) Loans due in more than 12 months
6) Bills issued
7) *Authorized capital
8) *Own shares repurchased from shareholders
19. To fill in the section of the balance sheet "Long-term liabilities", the information contained in the accounts is used
1) *Calculations on taxes and fees
2) *Settlements on long-term credits and loans
3) Deferred expenses
4) *Reserves for future expenses
5) *Target financing
6) Deferred income
7) Short-term financial investments
8) *Deferred tax liabilities
20. Estimated liabilities arise
1) *Due to participation in litigation
2) In connection with the upcoming repair of fixed assets
3) *In connection with the upcoming vacation pay
4) In connection with the possibility of receiving losses
21. To fill in the "Accounts payable" item, the information contained in the accounts is used
22. When reforming the balance sheet, the account is closed
1) *99 "Profit and Loss"
2) 96 "Reserves for future expenses"
3) 90 "Sales"
4) 97 "Deferred expenses"
5) 94 "Shortages and losses from damage to valuables"
6) 84 "Retained earnings (uncovered loss)"
23. Investments in quoted securities are assessed for inclusion in the balance sheet.
1) At original cost
2) *At market value
3) By residual value
24. Work in progress is valued for balance sheet
1) *According to actual costs incurred
2) At original cost
3) By residual value
25. The authorized capital is estimated when reflected in the balance sheet
1) As the amount of contributions actually made by the founders as of the reporting date
2) *As the amount registered in the founding documents
3) Depending on the accepted accounting policy
26. Indebtedness of the founders on contributions to the authorized capital when compiling the balance sheet
1) *Reflected as part of receivables
2) Reflected as part of accounts payable
3) Deducted from the amount of the authorized capital
27. To fill in the balance sheet item “Fixed Assets”, accounting accounts are used
2) *01,02
28. To fill in the balance sheet item “Intangible Assets”, accounting accounts are used
2) *04,05
29. To fill in the balance sheet item “Cash”, accounting accounts are used
2) *50,51,52,55,57
3) 50,51,52,55,57,58
30. To fill in the balance sheet item “Retained earnings (uncovered loss)”, accounting accounts are used
3) *99,84
31. To fill in the balance sheet item “Other liabilities”, accounting accounts are used
2) *86,76
32. When reflecting the cost of goods in the balance sheet, accounting accounts are used
1) *41,42
33. To fill in the balance sheet item “Deferred tax assets”, accounting accounts are used
34. In the balance sheet for the group of articles "Reserves" when using accounts 15 and 16, the amount of deviations in value accrued at the end of the reporting period material assets:
1) Not taken into account
2) *To be added or subtracted when determining totals
3) Reflected in other current assets
35. The cost of goods shipped in the balance sheet is reflected when the condition is met
1) Products (goods) have been shipped to the buyer
2) *The conditions for recognizing revenue from the sale of products (goods) are not met
3) Payments for shipped products (goods) have not been made
36. In the balance sheet under the item "Borrowed funds" of the section "Long-term liabilities" are given
1) The amounts of long-term loans and borrowings received in the reporting period
2) Outstanding amounts of loans and borrowings due in less than 12 months
3) *Outstanding amounts of loans and borrowings due to be repaid in more than 12 months
PROFIT AND LOSS REPORT TESTS
1. To fill in the section “Income and expenses from ordinary activities” of the Profit and Loss Statement, an account is used:
2. To fill in the “Other income and expenses” section of the Profit and Loss Statement, accounts are used
2) 91,99
3. The following indicators are shown in the Profit and Loss Statement:
1) balance sheet profit
Control questions on the topic “Balance sheet”
1. What is a balance sheet?
2. What is meant by an asset and a liability of the balance sheet?
3. What is meant by a balance sheet item?
4. What is the reason for the equality of the results of the asset and liability?
5. What is the balance currency?
6. How many types of balance sheet changes are there?
7. Name the types of balances.
8. Describe the type of changes in the balance sheet.
9. What was the basis for building a balance sheet?
10. What is the balance sheet for appearance?
Test on the topic “Balance sheet”
1. The balance sheet is ...
a) ... a way of generalized reflection at a certain moment of the monetary value of the economic assets of an enterprise in their double grouping.
b) ... a way of grouping costs and reflecting funds in their double grouping
c) ... a way to check the compliance of the actual presence of property in their double grouping.
2. What was first used to compile the balance sheet?
a) dual grouping of accounting objects
b) money meters
c) balance summary of information
3. Economic operations of the first type affect:
a) only a liability balance
b) only the asset balance
c) asset and liability balance
4. What is called the balance sheet?
a) equality of the sums of the asset and liabilities of the balance sheet
b) an indicator of the asset and liability of the balance, characterizing certain types property
c) there is no correct answer
5. What sections of the balance sheet interacts with Section III?
a) Sections IV and V
b) Sections I and V
c) Sections I and II
6. Business transactions of type III affect:
a) asset and liability balance in the direction of increase
b) asset and liability of the balance in the direction of decrease
c) only the liability of the balance in the direction of increase
7. Is there a balance of labor resources?
8. How many sections are there in the asset balance?
9. How many sections are in the liability balance?
10. What is the main element of balance?
a) currency
c) article
Practical work on the topic “Balance sheet”
Indicate what type of balance sheet changes business transactions are:
1. Transferred from the current account by suppliers to pay off the debt -8,000 rubles.
2. Goods received from the supplier, payments for which have not yet been made - 20,000 rubles.
3. Received from debtors to the cashier 10,000 rubles.
4. Received to the cashier from the current account for the payment of wages to workers and employees 42,000 rubles.
5. Wages issued from the cash desk for workers and employees 42,000 rubles.
6. Received materials from suppliers, payments for which have not yet been made - 6,000 rubles.
7. Paid from the settlement account to suppliers for materials and goods 26,000 rubles.
8. Part of the profit, by decision of the founders, was directed to the reserve capital - 130,000 rubles.
9. Returned to the cashier the balance of the accountable amount - 200 rubles.
10. Paid from the current account debt to the budget - 3000 rubles.
11. Issued from the cash desk for the report amount - 2,000 rubles.
12. A part of a short-term loan is repaid from the current account - 15,000 rubles.
